Discussion Forum : Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Question -


3cos−1x−πx−π2=0 has :
 

Options:
A .   One solution
B .   Infinite solutions
C .   No solution
D .   None of these
Answer: Option A
:
A
3cos−1x−πx−π2=0 Has : 
3cos−1x−πx+π2
Clearly graphs of y=3cos−1x and y=πx+π2 in the domain of cos−1x i.e., in [-1, 1] intersect only once, therefore there is only one solution of the given equation. 

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