Discussion Forum : Binomial Theorem
Question -


If (1+x)n=C0+C1x+C2x2+........+Cnx2, then 


C20+C21+C22+C23+..........+C2n =

Options:
A .   n!n!n!
B .   (2n)!n!n!
C .   (2n)!n!
D .   None of these
Answer: Option B
:
B

(1+x)n=C0+C1x+C2x2+.........+CnXn  ...........(i)


and (1+1x)n =C0+C11x+C2(1x)2+........+Cn(1x)n    ..........(ii)


If we multiply (i) and (ii), we get


C20+C21+C22+........+C2n


is the term independent of x and hence it is equal to the term independent of x in the product (1+x)n(1+1x)n or in  1xn(1+x)2n or term


containing xn in (1+x)2n. Clearly the coefficient of xn in (1+x)2x is Tn+1 and equal to 2nCn = (2n)!n!n! 


Trick: Solving conversely.


Put n = 1, n = 2,.........then we get S1 = 1C20+1C21= 2,


S22C20+2C21+2C22=12+22+12 = 6


Now check  the options
(a) Does not hold given condition,
(b) (i) Put n = 1, then 2!1!1!=2
     (ii) Put n = 2, then 4!2!2!=4×3×2×12×1×2×1=6
Note: Students should remember this question as identity



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